View Full Version : NBA infamy?

06-19-2005, 11:05 PM
At the end of regulation of Game 5, Rasheed called a timeout, but the Pistons didn't have any, and the game went into overtime. Hubie mentioned the Pistons were lucky that time expired before Rasheed called time out, otherwise, he would've been part of NBA "infamy'.

Anyone know what he is referring to? What happens if you call timeout, when your team has no timeouts?

06-19-2005, 11:26 PM
You get a technical foul shot. I hope you heard what Al Michaels said " Webber is in the house too".

Misfit Mav
06-19-2005, 11:26 PM
He's referring to a similar situation in an NCAA championship game, in which Chris Webber called a timeout when he had none remaining. It counts as a technical foul, and Michigan lost the game as a result.

06-20-2005, 01:08 AM
Isn't it a technical foul shot and you get the ball?

06-20-2005, 05:28 PM
Dub, you are correct. I managed to find the right section.

From nba.com (http://www.nba.com/analysis/rules_5.html?nav=ArticleList):

g. Requests for a timeout in excess of the authorized number shall be granted and a technical foul shall be assessed. Following the timeout, the ball will be awarded to the opposing team and play shall resume with a throw-in nearest the spot where play was interrupted.