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Old 06-16-2015, 09:03 PM   #830
Bryan_Wilson
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Thespiralgoeson View Post
Well it's not like there isn't a precedent for it. Jerry West was MVP for his losing team way back in 1969. And under normal circumstances I might agree, but these are NOT normal circumstances. The Cavs have no business being even remotely competitive in this series, and Lebron has kept it close by itself. And even for Lebron, it is NOT reasonable to expect the guy to average roughly 40 a game AND a triple-double, no matter how "sky high" his usage rate is. Win or lose, you could very easily argue that this is the greatest performance in the history of the NBA finals. That I think is enough to merit a break with tradition.
Wasn't West the first to ever be given the award? I'd argue that since that time there is now a precedent for giving it to the best player on the winning team. I won't argue with breaking tradition, I just think West was a product of there being no precedent as he was the first to be awarded finals MVP.
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