Thread: Can someone explain why this is called a "stimulus"
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Old 01-31-2009, 10:11 AM   #33
wmbwinn
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Originally Posted by alexamenos View Post
FYI -- mineral rights are already taxed (heavily) in the state of Texas. Oil companies and royalty interest owners pay taxes on their minerals the same way home owners pay taxes on the value of their homes. In most other states, oil companies pay a severance fee on oil and gas production to the state long before they pay income taxes (or not) to the fed gov.
agreed with Alexamenos. I know from prior discussions that Dalmations lives in a rural area as I do. I have some personal knowledge and experience on the issue of mineral rights as well. The value is heavily, heavily taxed. Of course, those with mineral rights are not complaining. It is basically free money with a passive income for which you do nothing. At some point, the family owned land where oil/gas was found, but they sold the land and kept the mineral rights. Thus, they no longer have any real investment in the passive income.

So, I understand both sides of the arguement.
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