Thread: Can someone explain why this is called a "stimulus"
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Old 01-31-2009, 05:58 PM   #48
wmbwinn
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Originally Posted by dalmations202 View Post
I've googled it, and searched, and I find royalty taxes, but not taxes on mineral rights.

The difference being one is when you are profitting, and one is an all-time thing.

I have to have mineral rights in order to get a royalty check. If no royalty check coming in -- then they cost nothing -- unlike the landowner who is taxed every year.
If I understand Alex, he just said that the land itself and the corresponding property tax were higher in lands with known mineral right resources for sale or otherwise available. So, the property tax issue was correspondingly higher for those lands. And, the money was carried off to spread around Texas.

I could have understood wrong.

But, I'm sure that mineral rights are not taxed at all like a property tax. I'm sure you are correct on that issue.

I'm just not sure that there is a problem with that for the reasons I explained before.
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