Thread: Can someone explain why this is called a "stimulus"
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Old 01-31-2009, 06:16 PM   #50
dalmations202
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Originally Posted by wmbwinn View Post
If I understand Alex, he just said that the land itself and the corresponding property tax were higher in lands with known mineral right resources for sale or otherwise available. So, the property tax issue was correspondingly higher for those lands. And, the money was carried off to spread around Texas.

I could have understood wrong.

But, I'm sure that mineral rights are not taxed at all like a property tax. I'm sure you are correct on that issue.

I'm just not sure that there is a problem with that for the reasons I explained before.
Fair enough. I just don't like the boondoggle. Landowner pays because the land is worth more because of mineral rights that they don't own.

The person most likely to profit vastly on the land, is not the landowner, but the landowner is the one taxed yearly.

It is just kind of screwed up, IMO.
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